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Theory

e, ln, odds and the sigmoid

ln undoes a power, so it solves for time; odds = p ÷ (1 − p), log-odds and the sigmoid p = 1 ÷ (1 + e⁻ᶻ), eᵇ as an odds multiplier, and payback with churn.

~8 min read · 9 exercises · 250 points

Before you start

How long until, how likely is

Back at Klasna for the last lesson of the growth module. Two kinds of questions keep coming up: "how long until…?" and "how likely is…?". Both need two calculator buttons you may have skipped at school: e and ln.

You'll use the logarithm to get time out of an exponent, meet e as the number behind continuous growth, and turn probabilities into odds and back with the S-shaped curve that models use for yes-or-no outcomes.

ln undoes a power: solving for time

Growth questions often ask "how long?": how long until money doubles, until a metric hits a target. The unknown then sits in the exponent: aᵗ = b. The natural logarithm, ln, brings it down, because ln(aᵗ) = t × ln a. So t = ln b ÷ ln a.

at=b  ⇒  t=ln⁡bln⁡aa^t = b \;\Rightarrow\; t = \frac{\ln b}{\ln a}
ln: the natural logarithm, a calculator or spreadsheet button (=LN). Any log works for this ratio, as long as both use the same one.

Example: how long does money take to double at 25% a year? 1.25ᵗ = 2, so t = ln 2 ÷ ln 1.25 = 0.6931 ÷ 0.2231 ≈ 3.1 years. Check: 1.25³ ≈ 1.95, just short of 2.

ln is a calculator button and a spreadsheet function (=LN). For this ratio any logarithm works, as long as the top and the bottom use the same one.

Two habits help. Take ln of the growth factor (1.25), not of the rate (0.25): ln 0.25 is negative and gives nonsense. And check with a power: the t you found should make aᵗ close to b. Isolate the power first, as in Rearranging a formula: solve for what you need, then take ln.

  • Do
    Doubling at 25%: ln 2 ÷ ln 1.25 ≈ 3.1 years.
  • Don't
    t = ln 2 ÷ ln 0.25

    Use the growth factor 1.25, not the rate.

What e is, and why ln pairs with it

e ≈ 2.718 is a constant like π, and it falls out of growth. Take 1 at 100% a year. Add the interest once and you get 2. Add it monthly and you get (1 + 1/12)¹² ≈ 2.613. Daily, (1 + 1/365)³⁶⁵ ≈ 2.715. Continuously, the limit of (1 + 1/n)ⁿ as n grows, you get e.

So eˣ is a growth factor: e^0.5 ≈ 1.65, e¹ ≈ 2.72, e⁰ = 1, e⁻¹ ≈ 0.37. And ln is the power of e that gives a number: ln(eˣ) = x, ln 1 = 0, ln e = 1. The two undo each other, like squaring and the square root.

Why it matters here: logistic models, continuous growth and many statistics formulas are written with e and ln. You never compute e by hand; you read eˣ as "a factor" and ln as "the power that makes this factor".

Landmarks: ln of a number above 1 is positive, ln of a number between 0 and 1 is negative, and ln 0 doesn't exist.

  • Do
    Read e⁰ = 1, e¹ ≈ 2.72 and e⁻¹ ≈ 0.37 as growth factors.
  • Don't
    "e is what 100% interest gives in one year."

    Interest added once gives 2.

Odds: yes compared with no

Odds compare yes with no: odds = p ÷ (1 − p), where p is the probability of yes and 1 − p the probability of no, the pair that p and 1 − p covers in module 7. If 20% of trial learners buy a package, the odds are 0.2 ÷ 0.8 = 0.25, "one to four": one buyer for every four who don't.

odds=p1−pp=11+e−z,z=ln⁡(odds)=b0+b1x\text{odds} = \frac{p}{1 - p} \qquad p = \frac{1}{1 + e^{-z}}, \quad z = \ln(\text{odds}) = b_0 + b_1 x
p: probability; z: the log-odds, the score a logistic regression adds up; the second formula, the sigmoid, turns any z into a p between 0 and 1.

Landmarks: p = 0.5 gives odds of 1, "even"; p = 0.75 gives 3; p = 0.9 gives 9; p = 0.1 gives about 0.11. Odds run from 0 to infinity, and they grow fast as p nears 1.

Odds aren't a probability. "Odds of 3" is neither "300%" nor "30%": it says yes is three times as likely as no, which is p = 0.75.

Odds turn up wherever logistic models, bets and 2 × 2 tables do. Their advantage is that multiplying odds always gives valid odds, while multiplying a probability can push it past 1.

  • Do
    20% buy: odds 0.2 ÷ 0.8 = 0.25, one to four.
  • Don't
    "Odds of 3 mean a 30% chance."

    Odds of 3 are p = 0.75.

From odds back to probability, and why take the log

To turn odds back into a probability, divide them by one plus themselves: p = odds ÷ (1 + odds). Odds of 1.5 give 1.5 ÷ 2.5 = 0.6; odds of 0.25 give 0.25 ÷ 1.25 = 0.2. Check by going forward: 0.6 ÷ 0.4 = 1.5.

Odds are lopsided around 1. Everything below "even" is squeezed between 0 and 1, everything above spreads out to infinity. 0.25 and 4 are mirror images, one to four and four to one, yet they sit at very different distances from 1.

The logarithm fixes that. ln 0.25 ≈ −1.39 and ln 4 ≈ +1.39: the log-odds are symmetric around 0, which stands for p = 0.5. They run from minus to plus infinity, so a model can add contributions freely without ever producing an impossible probability.

That's why logistic models work on the log-odds scale, z = ln(odds), and convert back to a probability only at the end.

  • Do
    Odds 1.5 → p = 1.5 ÷ 2.5 = 0.6.
  • Don't
    "Odds of 1.5 mean a 150% chance."

    A probability can't exceed 1.

The sigmoid: from a score to a probability

A logistic model adds up a score on the log-odds scale, for example z = −1.5 + 0.5 × lessons in the first week. The sigmoid turns any z into a probability between 0 and 1: p = 1 ÷ (1 + e⁻ᶻ).

Formula: p: probability; z: the log-odds, the score a logistic regression adds up; the second formula, the sigmoid, turns any z into a p between 0 and 1. · shown above

Worked values for that model: 3 lessons give z = 0, so p = 1 ÷ (1 + 1) = 0.5. 5 lessons give z = 1, so p = 1 ÷ (1 + e⁻¹) = 1 ÷ 1.368 ≈ 0.73. 1 lesson gives z = −1 and p = 1 ÷ (1 + e) ≈ 0.27.

The curve is S-shaped: steep in the middle, flat at the ends. Near p = 0.5 a step in z moves the probability a lot; near 0 or 1 the same step barely moves it. It never reaches 0 or 1, however large z gets.

The sigmoid turns a score z into a probability between 0 and 1: z = −1 gives 0.27, z = 0 gives 0.5, z = 1 gives 0.73; each step of 1 in z multiplies the odds by e ≈ 2.72.
Steep in the middle, flat at the ends: the same step in z moves p most near 0.5.

Order of operations matters, as in Order of operations, ratios and multiples: compute z first, then e⁻ᶻ, then 1 + e⁻ᶻ, then divide. Watch the minus: z = −1 puts e⁺¹ in the denominator.

  • Do
    z = 1: p = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.368) ≈ 0.73.
  • Don't
    "z = 1 means a probability of 1."

    z is a score, not a probability.

eᵇ: a coefficient multiplies the odds

In a logistic model a coefficient b adds to the log-odds. Adding inside ln is multiplying outside, so one more unit of that variable multiplies the odds by eᵇ. It does not add b to the probability.

Example: b = 0.5 per lesson in the first week means each extra lesson multiplies the odds of buying by e^0.5 ≈ 1.65. A whole step of 1 in z multiplies the odds by e ≈ 2.72: z = 0 is odds of 1, z = 1 is odds of 2.72.

What that does to the probability depends on the start. Take b = 0.4, a factor of e^0.4 ≈ 1.49. From p = 0.2 (odds 0.25) the odds become 0.37 and p ≈ 0.27; from p = 0.5 (odds 1), 1.49 and p ≈ 0.60; from p = 0.9 (odds 9), 13.4 and p ≈ 0.93.

So report "about 1.5 times the odds", and when you translate it into a probability, say from which starting point.

  • Do
    b = 0.7: "about twice the odds of buying".
  • Don't
    b = 0.7: "+70% chance of buying".

    b works on the log-odds scale.

Payback with churn: when does a member pay back?

Combine the finite sum from Geometric series with ln. A member brings margin g a month and churn c thins the group, so after t months the expected margin is g × (1 − (1 − c)ᵗ) ÷ c. Payback is the t where this equals the acquisition cost, CAC.

Rearrange: (1 − c)ᵗ = 1 − CAC × c ÷ g. Take ln: t = ln(1 − CAC·c ÷ g) ÷ ln(1 − c).

t=ln⁡(1−CAC⋅cg)ln⁡(1−c)t = \frac{\ln\left(1 - \frac{CAC \cdot c}{g}\right)}{\ln(1 - c)}
g: margin per member per month; c: monthly churn; CAC: the cost to acquire one member. If CAC ≥ g ÷ c, the bracket is 0 or negative and the member never pays back.

Example: g = 200 UAH, c = 5%, CAC = 1,500. 1 − 1,500 × 0.05 ÷ 200 = 0.625; t = ln 0.625 ÷ ln 0.95 ≈ −0.470 ÷ −0.0513 ≈ 9.2 months.

The curve flattens towards the cap g ÷ c = 4,000, the LTV. If CAC is at or above the cap, the bracket is zero or negative, ln has no answer, and the member never pays back. Check the cap first.

Expected margin per member climbs towards 200 ÷ 0.05 = 4,000 UAH and crosses a 1,500 UAH acquisition cost after about 9.2 months; a cost above 4,000 would never be paid back.
The curve flattens because members leave, so payback can be "never".

How it fits together: ln brings exponents down, e builds growth factors, odds and the sigmoid link scores to probabilities, and payback with churn joins them. Module 7 turns to probability itself: complements, conditional probability, expected value and the normal curve.

  • Do
    Check the cap first: CAC 1,500 < 200 ÷ 0.05 = 4,000.
  • Don't
    Payback = CAC ÷ g = 1,500 ÷ 200 = 7.5 months.

    That ignores members who leave.

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